Q: Is it impossible for the driver of a vehicle which has been rear-ended to be at fault for a crash?
Q: I was traveling in stop-and-go traffic when I felt two impacts to the rear of my vehicle. Upon exiting my vehicle I realized I had been involved in a multi-vehicle-rear-end with two other vehicles. The driver of the rear-most-vehicle claims the middle vehicle rear-ended me first, and that he in turn rear-ended the middle vehicle due to its sudden and unexpected reduction in speed. The driver of the middle vehicle claims he was first rear-ended by the third vehicle and that the impact was so hard that the middle vehicle ricocheted between the two vehicles with enough force to hit my vehicle twice. I'm not sure who is telling the truth. Does it even make a difference?